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Isn't it generally considered that orthographic gn was already pronounced ŋn in classical Latin, which even agrees with its development in Romanian (the only language I know of where it didn't become a palatal nasal)? Why the need for a supposed ɣn phase in proto-Romance? Ngfsmg (talk) 03:19, 10 December 2022 (UTC)[reply]
Perhaps the cited sources and footnote could be of some help. Nicodene (talk) 01:33, 21 September 2023 (UTC)[reply]
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